David Dickson and the “Judicial Laws”

Truth's Victory Over Error

Did the Lord by Moses give to the Jews as a body politic sundry judicial laws which expired with their state?

Yes.

Do they oblige any other now, further than the general equity thereof may require?

No. (Exod. 21; 22:1-29; Gen. 49:10; 1 Cor. 9:8-10; 1 Pet. 2:13-14; Matt. 5:17,38-39).

Well then, do not some err, though otherwise orthodox, who maintain that the whole judicial law of the Jews is yet alive and binding all of us who are Christian Gentiles?

Yes.

By What reasons are they confuted?

1. Because the judicial law was delivered by Moses to the Israelites to be observed, as to a body politic (Exod. 21).

2. Because this law, in many things which are of particular right, was accommodated to the commonwealth of the Jews, and not to other nations also (Exod. 22:3; 21:2; Lev. 25:2-3; Deut. 24:1-3; 25:5-7).

3. Because, in other things which are not of particular right, it is neither from the law of nature obliging by reason; neither is it pressed upon believers under the gospel to be observed.

4. Because believers are appointed under the gospel to obey the civil law and commands of those under whose government they live, providing they be just, and that for conscience’ sake (Rom. 13:1, 1 Pet. 2:13-14; Titus 3:1).

David Dickson, Truth’s Victory Over Error, 122

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